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JF's avatar

Great to see I inspired that debate!

First, I am not against Cape-Schiller ratio and I obviously agree the higher the starting valuation the lower the expected return.

No debate here.

My point was to take Cape-Schiller as the starting with a grain of salt currently due to what happened in the last 10 years vs what usually happens to earnings over a 10 year period.

When you overlap p/e and Cape-Schiller graphs you see an obvious overlap, except for the last 10 years. This is just weird to completely ignore that anomaly de facto.

Total earnings of S&P 500 in 2015 were at ~800M and they are at $2.5T now.

That's a 12% CAGR over a decade.

And that's absolute earnings not taking into account the record decade of buybacks.

I understand what happened on the past 120 years, but does it really make sense to start a valuation at the average between $2.5T and $0.8T?

It feels like this would be like looking at climate change and ignoring the accelerated heating of the past decades and sticking with the average decade change of the past 300 years. And saying the starting level is the average between now and 1976... it wouldn't make any sense. Because recent years did happen and we are now at a new point in time.

I'm not saying the last decade will repeat: I have no idea. I simply don't think the valuation starting line for today should be measured by the average of last 10 years.

It's not to brush it off completely and it's obviously always good to be prudent and aware of the risks. It's more to say it is not an absolute indicator and not one to take immediate action upon. If we look at Cape-Schiller ratio, it was already at all-time (non-2000) peak level in 2018... 150% ago.

I do agree with your points about index concentration and index concentration is the reason I buy individual stocks personally.

But the mega-caps have been growing at never-seen before pace for mega-caps. And years after years. They did it, it's done and it lead us that earnings level now.

One minor last point: I know we have data since 1871 but I really think finances got more efficient since. With 100+ years of data now, it has been demonstrated thousands of times that equities outperform fixed income over time. I think markets acknowledged that information and is giving higher multiples to equities now vs 30-50 years ago because of all these studies showing the risk over time isn't that much greater than fixed income vs the reward. This needs to be taken into consideration I think.

Thanks for the write-up and debate!

TL/DR:

Yes Cape-Schiller can be a good datapoint to consider, but I think we need to adjust some things to take into consideration the situation we are in right now.

P.S. About the evidence test: be caution about plot lines that are overlapping data and are autocorrelated.

The dot for Jan 1995 -> Jan 2005 and the one for Feb 1995 -> Feb 2005 are not 2 independent events. They share more than 99% the same date (119 months out of 120).

This creates the illusion of sample size but the graph will obviously correlate by design. It's a no-no in statistics to demonstrate correlation...

LL's avatar

Regression-type studies are cool but may miss the mark because Shiller cape seem to be most interesting and useful at extremes. And the current cape is extreme across both entire history since 1871, and across rolling 10, 20, and 30 year windows. Meaning even if we grant "regime change", market is expensive within the current regime.

As for common sense, excess cape yield is now sub 1. Which is the big difference compared to 2020. In fact, if one uses 10 year tip as real risk free benchmark, the ecy is already negative. Buying equities at thin to negative risk premium seems weird, but hey, Japan did it before!

Earnings - am wondering if anyone has actually looked if past 10 year real earnings CAGR - by either the cape earnings or the spot - actually outperformed the past significantly or still within the top-bands set by the 1950s smokestack America businesses.

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